Dr. Thorne is reviewing the pharmacological profiles of antipsychotic medications to treat a patient presenting with both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following statements correctly describes the synaptic mechanism of action that distinguishes atypical antipsychotics (such as Clozapine) from typical antipsychotics?
Atypical antipsychotics act by blocking the re-uptake of dopamine into the pre-synaptic neuron to increase overall synaptic transmission, while typical antipsychotics permanently block post-synaptic receptors.
Atypical antipsychotics selectively antagonise serotonin and glutamate receptors, having absolutely no affinity or binding action at D2D_2D2 dopamine receptors.
Atypical antipsychotics temporarily bind to post-synaptic D2D_2D2 dopamine receptors and rapidly dissociate from them, while also acting on serotonin (such as 5-HT2A_{2A}2A) and glutamate receptors.
Atypical antipsychotics permanently block D2D_2D2 dopamine receptors to guarantee continuous, irreversible suppression of dopamine transmission, while having no effect on other neurotransmitter pathways.
Practise AQA A Level Psychology Drug therapy for schizophrenia with exam-style questions for A Level Psychology. 14 questions, matched to the AQA A Level Psychology (7182) specification and written in Paper 1, Paper 2 and Paper 3 style. Every question includes a full worked solution and mark scheme, so you can see where marks are awarded rather than just whether you got the answer right.
